2nd Psalm

In looking at the translation of the 2nd psalm that the early americans did, and looking at the translation that Robert Alter did there are quite a few differences in word choice. Of these word choices a few really stand out. First among these is the early editions use of the word heathen in the line, "Why rage the Heathen furiously". In Alter's translation the line reads "Why are the nations aroused". At face value this difference in translation seems small, but when taking a look at the time and place at which the early translation was done, the word choice seems very important.

For me, the word heathen in terms of the early translation can only really point to one group, and that's the native americans. In the early reading of the psalms by the americans this word choice would have been relevant to their lives. the people who read this psalm, undoubtedly encountered native americans, and most likely thought of them as heathen. Thus if a psalm said that god would strike down the heathen, it would seem like good justification for the pilgrims to take action against the native americans. Alter, dealing with no such bias, translates the passage to have a meaning much more relevant to the biblical time that the psalm was actually written.

Another word choice that seems to be a tip of the cap to the pilgrims is the line "and of the earth thou shalt possess the utmost coasts abroad." In Alter's translation the line reads I shall give nations as your estate, and as your holdings, the ends of the earth". Once again, the pilgrim translation is made to be relevant to the pilgrims life. They found themselves on a coast abroad, so this reading of the psalm would seem like justification for taking the coast as their own.

In the end, the bible and other holy texts only hold power when they are relevant to ones life, so it makes sense that the first white americans would want to make the 2nd psalm applicable to their lives.